d’Alembert-Cauchy Ratio Test
The following d’Alembert-Cauchy ratio test is one of the easiest to apply and is widely used.
Theorem (d’Alembert-Cauchy Ratio Test). Suppose that \sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n is a series with positive terms.
- If \lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}<1 then \sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n converges.
- If \lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}>1 then \sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n diverges.
- If \lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}=1 then \sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n then the convergence is indeterminant, i.e., the ratio test provides no information regarding the convergence of the series \sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n.
Example. Test \sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{n}{2^n} for convergence.
Solution. \begin{align*}\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}&=\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{\frac{n+1}{2^{n+1}}}{\frac{n}{2^n}}\\&=\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{n+1}{2n}\\&=\frac{1}{2}<1\end{align*} Hence by the ratio test the series converges.
Example. Test the convergence of the series \sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{n^n}{n!}.
Solution.
\begin{align*}
\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}&=\lim_{n\to\infty}\left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right)^n\\
&=e>1.
\end{align*}
Hence, the series diverges.
Remark. There is an easier way to show the divergence of the series \sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{n^n}{n!}.
Note that
a_n=\frac{n^n}{n!}=\frac{n\cdot n\cdot n\cdots n}{1\cdot 2\cdot 3\cdots n}\geq n.
This implies that \lim_{n\to\infty}a_n=\infty. Hence by the divergence test the series diverges.
Cauchy Root Test
Theorem (Cauchy Root Test). Suppose that \sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n be a series with positive terms.
- If \lim_{n\to\infty}\root n\of{a_n}=r<1 then \sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n converges.
- If \lim_{n\to\infty}\root n\of{a_n}=r> 1 then \sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n diverges.
- If \lim_{n\to\infty}\root n\of{a_n}=r=1 then the test fails, i.e., the root test is inclusive.
Example. Test the convergence of the series \sum_{n=1}^\infty\left(\frac{2n+3}{3n+2}\right)^n.
Solution. \begin{align*}\lim_{n\to\infty}\root n\of{a_n}&=\lim_{n\to\infty}\root n\of{\left(\frac{2n+3}{3n+2}\right)^n}\\&=\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{2n+3}{3n+2}\\&=\frac{2}{3}<1\end{align*}Hence by the root test the series converges.
Comparison Test
Theorem (Comparison Test). Suppose that \sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n and \sum_{n=1}^\infty b_n be series with positive terms.
- If \sum_{n=1}^\infty b_n converges and a_n\leq b_n for all n, then \sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n also converges.
- If \sum_{n=1}^\infty b_n diverges and b_n\leq a_n for all n, then \sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n also diverges.
Remark. For a convergent series we have the geometric series, whereas the harmonic series will serve as a divergent series. As other series are identified as either convergent or divergent, they may be used for the known series in this comparison test.
Example. Determine whether the series \sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{5}{2n^2+4n+3} converges.
Solution. Notice that \frac{5}{2n^2+4n+3}<\frac{5}{n^2} for all n. Since \sum_{n=1}\frac{1}{n^2} converges (it is a p-series with p=2), by the comparison test the series converges.
Example. Test the series \sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{n^3}{2n^4-1} for convergence or divergence.
Solution. 2n^4-1<2n^4 so \frac{n^3}{2n^4-1}>\frac{n^3}{2n^4}=\frac{1}{2n}. Since the harmonic series \sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{1}{n} diverges, the series diverges.
Example. Test the series \sum_{n=2}^\infty\frac{\ln n}{n} for convergence or divergence.
Solution. \left(\frac{\ln x}{x}\right)’=\frac{1-\ln x}{x^2}<0 on (e,\infty) i.e. \frac{\ln n}{n}>\frac{1}{n} for all n\geq 3. Since \sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{1}{n} diverges (the harmonic series, also p-series with p=1), by the comparison test, the series diverges.
Example. Test the series \sum_{n=2}^\infty\frac{\ln n}{n^3} for convergence or divergence.
Solution. As seen in the following figure, \ln n<n for all n\geq 2.

The graphs of y=ln(x) (in red) and y=x (in blue).
So \frac{\ln n}{n^3}<\frac{n}{n^3}=\frac{1}{n^2}. Since \sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{1}{n^2} converges (p-series with p=2>1), \sum_{n=2}^\infty\frac{\ln n}{n^3} also converges.
Example (The p series). Let p\leq 1 Then
\frac{1}{n}<\frac{1}{n^p} for all n, so by the Comparison Test
\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{1}{n^p} is divergent for all p\leq 1.
The Limit Comparison Test
The limit comparison Test is a variation of the comparison test.
Theorem (The Limit Comparison Test). Suppose that \sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n (this is the test subject) and \sum_{n=1}^\infty b_n (this is the series you know its convergence or divergence) are series with positive terms. Let L=\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{a_n}{b_n}. Then the following holds.
- If 0<L<\infty, then either both series converge or both diverge.
- If L=0 and \sum_{n=1}^\infty b_n converges, then \sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n converges.
- If L=\infty and \sum_{n=1}^\infty b_n diverges, then \sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n.
The limit comparison test is inconclusive otherwise.
Remark. Just like the comparison test the hardest part of using the limit comparison test is choosing a right series for \sum_{n=1}^\infty b_n and unfortunately there is no systematic way of choosing a right one. It just depends on the given series. It could be a geometric series as you will see in an example below. For certain types of series, a good candidate for b_n is \frac{1}{n^p} from the p-series with an appropriate p-value.
Example. Test the series \sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{1}{2^n-1} for convergence or divergence.
Solution. Considering that a_n=\frac{1}{2^n-1} and the geometric series \sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{1}{2^n} converges, it would be reasonable to try b_n=\frac{1}{2^n}. \begin{align*}\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{a_n}{b_n}&=\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{2^n}{2^n-1}\\&=\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{1}{1-\frac{1}{2^n}}\\&=1\end{align*} Since \sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{1}{2^n} converges, so should \sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{1}{2^n-1} by the limit comparison test.
Example. Test the series \sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{1}{\sqrt{n^2+1}} for convergence or divergence.
Solution. The dominant part of a_n=\frac{1}{\sqrt{n^2+1}} is \frac{1}{\sqrt{n^2}}=\frac{1}{n} so we choose b_n=\frac{1}{n}. Then \begin{align*}\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{a_n}{b_n}&=\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{n}{\sqrt{n^2+1}}\\&=\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{1}{\sqrt{1+\frac{1}{n^2}}}\\&=1\end{align*} Since \sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{1}{n} diverges, so should \sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{1}{\sqrt{n^2+1}} by the limit comparison test.
Example. Test the series \sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{n^4-2n^2+3}{2n^6-n+5} for convergence or divergence.
Solution. The dominant part of a_n is \frac{n^4}{n^6}=\frac{1}{n^2} so we choose b_n=\frac{1}{n^2}. Then \frac{\frac{n^4-2n^2+3}{2n^6-n+5}}{\frac{1}{n^2}}=\frac{n^6-2n^4+3n^2}{2n^6-n+5}\to\frac{1}{2} as n\to\infty. Since \sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{1}{n^2} converges, so does the given series by the limit comparison test.
Example. Test the series \sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{\ln n}{n^2} for convergence or divergence.
Solution. In this case, we try the p-series but we don’t know what p-value may work. To figure it out, let b_n=\frac{1}{n^p}. Then \frac{a_n}{b_n}=\frac{\frac{\ln n}{n}}{\frac{1}{n^p}}=\frac{\ln n}{n^{2-p}}. If p\geq 2 then \lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{a_n}{b_n}=\infty but \sum_{n=1}^\infty b_n converges so the test is inconclusive. This means that p<2. Now, using the L’Hôpital’s rule we get \lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{a_n}{b_n}=\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{1}{(2-p)n^{2-p}}=0 If p\leq 1 then \sum_{n=1}^\infty b_n diverges so the test would be inconclusive. This would leave us the condition 1<p<2 for the limit comparison test to work. This means that for any value of 1<p<2 the limit comparison test will tell us that the series \sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{\ln n}{n^2} converges. For instance, let us choose p=\frac{3}{2}. Then \frac{a_n}{b_n}=\frac{\ln n}{\sqrt{n}}\to 0 as n\to\infty. Since \sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{1}{n^{\frac{3}{2}}} converges, the series converges.
Remark. Doing the same analysis we did in the example above, we can also see why using the dominant part of a_n worked out in some earlier examples. For instance, consider the series \sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{n^4-2n^2+3}{2n^6-n+5} that we discussed earlier. Again a_n=\frac{n^4-2n^2+3}{2n^6-n+5} and let b_n=\frac{1}{n^p}. An appropriate p-value is yet to be determined. Now \frac{a_n}{b_n}=\frac{n^{p-2}-2n^{p-4}+3n^{p-6}}{2-\frac{1}{n^5}+\frac{5}{n^6}}. First, if p\leq 1, the p-series \sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{1}{n^p} diverges but \lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{a_n}{b_n}=0 so the test is inconclusive and hence p>1 in which case the p-series converges. If p>2 then \lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{a_n}{b_n}=\infty which makes the test inconclusive. Therefore we see that 1<p\leq 2. p=2 is what we get from the dominant part \frac{n^4}{n^6} of a_n. But that is not the only choice. You can choose any 1<p\leq 2 in order for the test to work, for example your could’ve chosen p=\frac{3}{2} in which case \lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{a_n}{b_n}=0. The limit comparison test says then the series converges.